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Peoplecert ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Exam Syllabus Topics:
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Peoplecert ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management Exam Sample Questions (Q20-Q25):
NEW QUESTION # 20
Which is a key input to the release planning and coordination process?
Answer: C
Explanation:
The release planning and coordination process in ITIL 4 Release Management requires inputs toensure effective planning and execution of releases. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument specifies:"Key inputs to release planning and coordination include details about the users who will be affected, as this helps in scheduling and communicating the release to minimize disruption"(Section 3.2.1).
* Option A (Documented findings on the success of a release) is an output of a release evaluation, not an input to planning.
* Option B (Updates to the continual improvement register) may inform long-term improvements but isn' t a direct input to planning a specific release.
* Option C (Details about the users who will be affected) is a critical input, as understanding the user base helps tailor the release schedule, communication, and impact mitigation strategies.
* Option D (Notifications to stakeholders about the release status) is an output of the release process, not an input to planning.
The correct answer is C, as user details are essential for effective release planning and coordination.
NEW QUESTION # 21
An organization invested in the development and adoption of a common approach to release management.
Which metric will help the organization to understand if this initiative has been successful?
Answer: D
Explanation:
A common approach to release management aims to improve the reliability and stability of releases. The ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument highlights key metrics for evaluating the success of release management:"Key metrics for release management often include the percentage of releases that do not result in incidents, as this indicates the stability and reliability of the release process"(Section 5.3).
* Option A (Alignment with suppliers) is a process improvement metric but doesn't directly measure the success of the release outcomes.
* Option B (The percentage of releases that do not result in incidents) directly measures the effectiveness of the release process by assessing its impact on service stability, aligning with the goal of a common approach to reduce errors and disruptions.
* Option C (Satisfaction rating) is a valuable metric but is more subjective and less directly tied to the operational success of a common approach.
* Option D (Number of delayed releases) measures timeliness but not the quality or stability of the releases.
The best metric to assess the success of a standardized release management approach is the reduction in incidents, making B the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 22
A service provider is receiving poor feedback from customers about releases of updates to a software product.
A review has shown that releases are often delayed or have to be repeated due to a lack of information about their impact on business processes and on other IT systems. The service provider is reviewing the value streams involving the software releases. Which step of the value stream analysis should the service provider use to understand the required information and dependencies?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Value stream analysis in ITIL 4 helps identify inefficiencies and dependencies in processes like release management. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument notes:"Reflecting on the 'as is' value stream map allows organizations to understand the current state, including dependencies and impacts on business processes and IT systems, which can reveal gaps in information that lead to delays or failures" (Section 4.3).
* Option A (Creating a 'to be' value stream map) focuses on designing the future state, which comes after understanding the current state.
* Option B (Reflecting on the 'as is' value stream map) is the correct step to understand current impacts and dependencies, identifying the root cause of delays and repeats.
* Option C (Identifying the scope of the value stream analysis) is an initial step but doesn't directly address understanding impacts.
* Option D (Identifying the workflow steps) is part of mapping but doesn't emphasize reflection on impacts and dependencies.
The correct answer is B, as reflecting on the current value stream map helps uncover the missing information about impacts.
NEW QUESTION # 23
What is MOST LIKELY to affect how significantly an organization's release management activities are dependent on partners and suppliers?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The dependency on partners and suppliers in release management is influenced by the extent to which an organization relies on external products or services. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management document explains:"The source of the organization's products and technology solutions significantly affects the dependency on partners and suppliers, as reliance on externalsoftware, hardware, or services increases the need for coordination during releases"(Section 3.4).
* Option A (The knowledge level of users) impacts user adoption but not the dependency on suppliers for release activities.
* Option B (The maturity of the practice) affects internal efficiency, not the structural dependency on external parties.
* Option C (The amount of automation) influences how releases are executed but doesn't determine the dependency on suppliers.
* Option D (The source of products and technology solutions) directly determines how much the organization relies on external parties, affecting release management dependency.
The correct answer is D, as the source of technology solutions most significantly impacts supplier dependency.
NEW QUESTION # 24
A service provider is conducting a capability assessment of the release management practice. It has been found that although the practice's performance is regularly reported and reviewed, most recommendations based on the reports are never implemented. What is the MAXIMUM capability level that could be given to the release management practice?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The ITIL capability model assesses practices based on their maturity and ability to improve. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument outlines the capability levels:"Level 2 (Managed) indicates that the practice is planned and tracked, with performance regularly reported. Level 3 (Defined) requires standardized processes and the ability to improve based on feedback. If recommendations from performance reviews are not implemented, the practice cannot achieve Level 3"(Section 5.2).
* The scenario indicates that performance is reported and reviewed (meeting Level 2 requirements), but recommendations are not implemented, meaning there's no improvement or standardization beyond basic management.
* Level 3 requires consistent improvement and standardization, which is not met due to the lack of implementation.
* Levels 4 (Quantitatively Managed) and 5 (Optimizing) require even higher maturity, including data- driven improvements and continuous optimization, which are not applicable here.
The maximum capability level is A (Level 2), as the practice is managed but not improving.
NEW QUESTION # 25
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