Free PDF 2025 CompTIA Unparalleled CAS-005: CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam Exams
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CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q50-Q55):
NEW QUESTION # 50
A company updates its cloud-based services by saving infrastructure code in a remote repository.
The code is automatically deployed into the development environment every time the code is saved lo the repository. The developers express concern that the deployment often fails, citing minor code issues and occasional security control check failures in the development environment.
Which of the following should a security engineer recommend to reduce the deployment failures?
(Select two).
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
Pre-commit code linting: Linting tools analyze code for syntax errors and adherence to coding standards before the code is committed to the repository. This helps catch minor code issues early in the development process, reducing the likelihood of deployment failures.
Automated regression testing: Automated regression tests ensure that new code changes do not introduce bugs or regressions into the existing codebase. By running these tests automatically during the deployment process, developers can catch issues early and ensure the stability of the development environment.
NEW QUESTION # 51
Audit findings indicate several user endpoints are not utilizing full disk encryption During me remediation process, a compliance analyst reviews the testing details for the endpoints and notes the endpoint device configuration does not support full disk encryption Which of the following is the most likely reason me device must be replaced'
Answer: D
Explanation:
The most likely reason the device must be replaced is that the motherboard was not configured with a TPM (Trusted Platform Module) from the OEM (Original Equipment Manufacturer) supplier.
Why TPM is Necessary for Full Disk Encryption:
Hardware-Based Security: TPM provides a hardware-based mechanism to store encryption keys securely, which is essential for full disk encryption.
Compatibility: Full disk encryption solutions, such as BitLocker, require TPM to ensure that the encryption keys are securely stored and managed.
Integrity Checks: TPM enables system integrity checks during boot, ensuring that the device has not been tampered with.
Other options do not directly address the requirement for TPM in supporting full disk encryption:
A . The HSM is outdated: While HSM (Hardware Security Module) is important for security, it is not typically used for full disk encryption.
B . The vTPM was not properly initialized: vTPM (virtual TPM) is less common and not typically a reason for requiring hardware replacement.
C . The HSM is vulnerable to common exploits: This would require a firmware upgrade, not replacement of the device.
E . The HSM does not support sealing storage: Sealing storage is relevant but not the primary reason for requiring TPM for full disk encryption.
Reference:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
"Trusted Platform Module (TPM) Overview," Microsoft Documentation
"BitLocker Deployment Guide," Microsoft Documentation
NEW QUESTION # 52
A security officer performs due diligence activities before implementing a third-party solution into the enterprise environment. The security officer needs evidence from the third party that a data subject access request handling process is in place. Which of the following is the security officer most likely seeking to maintain compliance?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:
Privacy regulations (C), such as GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation) and CCPA (California Consumer Privacy Act), require companies to provide data subject access request (DSAR) handling processes. A DSAR allows individuals to request details about their personal data stored by a company and request modifications or deletions.
Information security standards (A) focus on overall security controls, while e-discovery requirements (B) relate to legal investigations rather than ongoing compliance.
NEW QUESTION # 53
Which of the following is the security engineer most likely doing?
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the given scenario, the security engineer is likely examining login activities and their associated geolocations. This type of analysis is aimed at identifying unusual login patterns that might indicate an impossible travel scenario. An impossible travel scenario is when a single user account logs in from geographically distant locations in a short time, which is physically impossible. By assessing login activities using geolocation, the engineer can tune alerts to identify and respond to potential security breaches more effectively.
NEW QUESTION # 54
An organization is developing a disaster recovery plan that requires data to be backed up and available ata moment's notice. Which of the following should the organization consider first to address this requirement?
Answer: C
Explanation:
For a disaster recovery (DR) plan requiring immediate data availability, the first step is understanding what needs to be protected and recovered. Identifying critical business processes and their associated software and hardware requirements establishes the foundation for the DR plan. This ensures that backups and recovery mechanisms align with business priorities, meeting the "moment's notice" requirement.
* Option A:A change management plan is important for system consistency but doesn't directly address immediate data availability in a DR context.
* Option B:Hiring staff supports execution but doesn't define what needs to be recovered or how. It's a later step.
* Option C:A warm site (a partially operational backup site) is a good DR solution, but designing it comes after identifying critical processes and resources.
* Option D:This is the first step in any DR planning process-knowing what's critical ensures the plan meets availability goals efficiently.
NEW QUESTION # 55
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