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CompTIA CAS-005 Exam Syllabus Topics:
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CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam Sample Questions (Q126-Q131):
NEW QUESTION # 126
An organization wants to create a threat model to identity vulnerabilities in its infrastructure. Which of the following, should be prioritized first?
Answer: B
Explanation:
When creating a threat model to identify vulnerabilities in an organization's infrastructure, prioritizing external-facing infrastructure with known exploited vulnerabilities is critical. Here's why:
* Exposure to Attack: External-facing infrastructure is directly exposed to the internet, making it a primary target for attackers. Any vulnerabilities in this layer pose an immediate risk to the organization's security.
* Known Exploited Vulnerabilities: Vulnerabilities that are already known and exploited in the wild are of higher concern because they are actively being used by attackers. Addressing these vulnerabilities reduces the risk of exploitation significantly.
* Risk Mitigation: By prioritizing external-facing infrastructure with known exploited vulnerabilities, the organization can mitigate the most immediate and impactful threats, thereby improving overall security posture.
* References:
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
* NIST Special Publication 800-30: Guide for Conducting Risk Assessments
* OWASP Threat Modeling Cheat Sheet
NEW QUESTION # 127
A systems administrator wants to introduce a newly released feature for an internal application.
The administrate docs not want to test the feature in the production environment. Which of the following locations is the best place to test the new feature?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best location to test a newly released feature for an internal application, without affecting the production environment, is the staging environment.
Staging Environment: This environment closely mirrors the production environment in terms of hardware, software, configurations, and settings. It serves as a final testing ground before deploying changes to production. Testing in the staging environment ensures that the new feature will behave as expected in the actual production setup.
Isolation from Production: The staging environment is isolated from production, which means any issues arising from the new feature will not impact the live users or the integrity of the production data. This aligns with best practices in change management and risk mitigation.
Realistic Testing: Since the staging environment replicates the production environment, it provides realistic testing conditions. This helps in identifying potential issues that might not be apparent in a development or testing environment, which often have different configurations and workloads.
NEW QUESTION # 128
A systems administrator wants to reduce the number of failed patch deployments in an organization. The administrator discovers that system owners modify systems or applications in an ad hoc manner. Which of the following is the best way to reduce the number of failed patch deployments?
Answer: A
Explanation:
To reduce the number of failed patch deployments, the systems administrator should implement a robust change management process. Change management ensures that all modifications to systems or applications are planned, tested, and approved before deployment. This systematic approach reduces the risk of unplanned changes that can cause patch failures and ensures that patches are deployed in a controlled and predictable manner.
NEW QUESTION # 129
Emails that the marketing department is sending to customers are pomp to the customers' spam folders. The security team is investigating the issue and discovers that the certificates used by the email server were reissued, but DNS records had not been updated. Which of the following should the security team update in order to fix this issue? (Select three.)
Answer: C,E,F
Explanation:
To prevent emails from being marked as spam, several DNS records related to email authentication need to be properly configured and updated when there are changes to the email server's certificates:
* A. DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting & Conformance): DMARC records help email servers determine how to handle messages that fail SPF or DKIM checks, improving email deliverability and reducing the likelihood of emails being marked as spam.
* B. SPF (Sender Policy Framework): SPF records specify which mail servers are authorized to send email on behalf of your domain. Updating the SPF record ensures that the new email server is recognized as an authorized sender.
* C. DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail): DKIM adds a digital signature to email headers, allowing the receiving server to verify that the email has not been tampered with and is from an authorized sender. Updating DKIM records ensures that emails are properly signed and authenticated.
* D. DNSSEC (Domain Name System Security Extensions): DNSSEC adds security to DNS by enabling DNS responses to be verified. While important for DNS security, it does not directly address the issue of emails being marked as spam.
* E. SASC: This is not a relevant standard for this scenario.
* F. SAN (Subject Alternative Name): SAN is used in SSL/TLS certificates for securing multiple domain names, not for email delivery issues.
* G. SOA (Start of Authority): SOA records are used for DNS zone administration and do not directly impact email deliverability.
* H. MX (Mail Exchange): MX records specify the mail servers responsible for receiving email on behalf of a domain. While important, the primary issue here is the authentication of outgoing emails, which is handled by SPF, DKIM, and DMARC.
References:
* CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
* RFC 7208 (SPF), RFC 6376 (DKIM), and RFC 7489 (DMARC)
* NIST SP 800-45, "Guidelines on Electronic Mail Security"
NEW QUESTION # 130
A senior security engineer flags me following log file snippet as hawing likely facilitated an attacker's lateral movement in a recent breach:
Which of the following solutions, if implemented, would mitigate the nsk of this issue reoccurnnp?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The log snippet indicates a DNS AXFR (zone transfer) request, which can be exploited by attackers to gather detailed information about an internal network's infrastructure. Disabling DNS zone transfers is the best solution to mitigate this risk. Zone transfers should generally be restricted to authorized secondary DNS servers and not be publicly accessible, as they can reveal sensitive network information that facilitates lateral movement during an attack.
NEW QUESTION # 131
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